Probably a silly question, but let me preface this by saying I'm a newbie here, and just getting ready to put offers in. Looking for clarification... Specifically talking about houses off the MLS that your agent sends you.
When houses are listed below market value per the comps because perhaps the owners know it needs cosmetic rehab or what have you, how does this affect the 25-1 offer formula?
For example, I'm looking at a house right now that has an ARV based on the comps of $149,165. The listing price is $133,998. How does the part about built in profit work? Normally I think I might look to build in 20k profit on the offer for my buyer (I'm wholesaling only), but do I adjust it, because it's already below market value now and only build in the difference? In this case approximately 5k profit?
In other words:
$149,165 x .90
- holding/closing cost
-10k rehab
-20k profit
-wholesaling fee
=My max offer
Or do we change the 20k to 5k?
The 1st & only offer I made on my 1st wholesale deal on a HUD home was around the same exact number my buyer was willing to pay. He had funds to close, fix & flip it. But, he chose to wholesale it to his end buyer. If I woulda realized it, MY max offer woulda been 10% less & I woulda made more $. But, you live & learn.
My offer was based off the 70% wholesale formula. It looks something like this:
ARV (x) 70% - Repairs - Your Fee = Max Offer (For You)
The seller's total price would be = Your Max Offer + Your Fee
SO, An example of this for you would be:
$149,165 (ARV) x $104,416 (70% of ARV - $7,000 (Repairs) - $6,000 (Your Fee) = <$91,416>
Based on repair costs & how much profit you want to make, your offer range would be somewhere between $81,416 & $91,416, with $91k being the highest your offer. The buyer price to buy it would be: $97,416, which includes your profit.
Personally, I think $20k on your 1st wholesale deal is too much for a wholesale fee esp. if you're 1st starting out. Generally if the numbers are great and the buyer doesn't care, I say go for it.
When houses are listed below market value per the comps because perhaps the owners know it needs cosmetic rehab or what have you, how does this affect the 25-1 offer formula?
For example, I'm looking at a house right now that has an ARV based on the comps of $149,165. The listing price is $133,998. How does the part about built in profit work? Normally I think I might look to build in 20k profit on the offer for my buyer (I'm wholesaling only), but do I adjust it, because it's already below market value now and only build in the difference? In this case approximately 5k profit?
In other words:
$149,165 x .90
- holding/closing cost
-10k rehab
-20k profit
-wholesaling fee
=My max offer
Or do we change the 20k to 5k?
I am not understanding what you mean by this affecting your 25:1 offers. 25:1 means you put out 25 offers and one should get accepted.
www.tw4homes.com website
https://tvallc.isrefer.com/go/RehabLite/reigirl/ FREE SOFTWARE FOR WHOLESALERS, REHABBERS AND AGENTS! Present professional looking deals to buyers and lenders as well as run your numbers and get the ROI.
I can see I made this a bit more confusing than I meant too.
Really, I think I know the answer is it doesn't matter because you're making offers based on the ARV regardless of what the asking price is.
The 20k was not referring to my wholesale profit. That would be my hypothetical buyers profit. My wholesale fee would be much less.
And yes thishousebuyer, I've found so far anyway, that Matt's system and the 70% rule are not that far apart.
femailceo, I was referring to it possibly affecting the way you approach the #s of the 25-1.
Anyway, I think I'm all set, thank you!
First of all you have the formula wrong. I am not sure what the .90 is but if you already are deducting 20k profit for your buyer you do not need it in your formula.
In other words:
$149,165 x .90
- holding/closing cost
-10k rehab
-20k profit
-wholesaling fee
=My max offer
Or do we change the 20k to 5k?
I suggest that you keep all of your offers a standard formula and do not go by what the property is listed for but rather the actual ARV.
My formula...
ARV x .70 ( This leaves %30 profit for my buyer)
- rehab
-my fee
x .97 ( this will subtract 3% closing costs)
= MY OFFER
Hope this helps
Do not fear, for I am with you; do not be dismayed, for I am your God.I will strengthen you and help you; I will uphold you with my righteous right hand. Isaiah 41:10
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To your success,
Carol Stinson
Hi Carol,
The offer formula is taken straight from a presentation I heard Matt Larson make and it basically just looks like a slight alteration of the one in Dean's 30 Days book. The .90 just accounts for Realtor fees and a 3% discount off asking price. Maybe it's just another way of going about the same thing? Anyway, I have also run #'s for practice almost the exact same way as yours. Thanks for the feedback! Every bit helps! Yes the ARV seems like the key #.
I'm trying to get all my newbie questions out of the way before I start. Haha..
you don't reduce your buyer's profit... you buyer will tell you what he/she wants and you find a deal with your buyers' numbers in mind... as they say, always overestimate your costs, and underestimate your ARV, so you don't come up short
Valerie
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are right on the money. Stick to the formula Carol advised and also know what your buyer needs and then figure in your profit.
www.tw4homes.com website
https://tvallc.isrefer.com/go/RehabLite/reigirl/ FREE SOFTWARE FOR WHOLESALERS, REHABBERS AND AGENTS! Present professional looking deals to buyers and lenders as well as run your numbers and get the ROI.